tuanlam602 tuanlam602
  • 11-10-2018
  • Mathematics
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What is the answer???

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kudzordzifrancis
kudzordzifrancis kudzordzifrancis
  • 20-10-2018

ANSWER


Option B and C are equivalent.


EXPLANATION


[tex](\frac{1}{4})^{3x^2}[/tex]


Recall that,



[tex]\frac{1}{a^m}=a^{-m}[/tex]



This implies that,


[tex](\frac{1}{4})^{3x^2}=(4^{-1})^{3x^2}[/tex]



Recall again that,




[tex](a^m)^n=a^{mn}[/tex]



This implies that,


[tex](\frac{1}{4})^{3x^2}=(4)^{-3x^2}[/tex]


So we simplify option C to obtain option B. Hence the two are equivalent.


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