Answer with Step-by-step explanation:
Given
[tex]f(x)=\frac{1-cos(2x)}{1-cos(x)}\\\\\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}f(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{1-(cos^2{x}-sin^2{x})}{1-cos(x)})\\\\(\because cos(2x)=cos^2x-sin^2x)\\\\\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}f(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{1-cos^2x}{1-cos(x)}+\frac{sin^2x}{1-cosx})\\\\=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{(1-cosx)(1+cosx)}{1-cosx}+\frac{sin^2x}{1-cosx})\\\\=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}((1+cosx)+\frac{sin^2x}{1-cosx})\\\\\therefore \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}f(x)=1[/tex]
